If you roll a fair-sided die twice, what is the probability the die will land on the same number both times?
A. 1/3
B. 1/6
C. 1/12
D. 1/24
E. 1/36
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two independent events, then probability of first is 1/6 and probability of second is also 1/6, so probability of both 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36
e) 1/36
1/36
That was too easy.
This is how you break it down.
First, you have to figure that there are six sides on a die. Next, you roll it twice, which would be 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36.
Simple.
it is 1/6 there can be 1,1 2,2 3,3 4,4 5,5 6,6 in total of 36 outcomes so it is 6/36 = 1/6
ans is [B] 1/6
ya its B 1/6
answer is 1/6
as (1/6*1/6)*6
E
I think that the probability is 1/6. In the first dice, any number could be obtained but in the second one we need the same number.
First dice: 6/6
Second dice: 1/6
Probability: 1/6 ==> Answer B
gud expla. bscout thts (6/6)*(1/6) its B).
(had two dice been rolled at the same time the answer wud hve been (1/6)*(1/6).. smackdown hs gt it rong here)
hey, I dont know y u people r missing the trick, see,
for the first time if the die has been rolled, let us assume that we have got a number ‘x’, then the probability of getting that same number ‘x’ when the die rolls next will be 1/6
so, the simple ans is >>>>
1/6
Hello people,
I just sorted out the same answer in a more easier style. When you roll two fair dices the probability of getting the same number is only when they meet. Ex: (1,1) (2,2)…(6,6) so its 6 times. Total rolled is 36 times. 6/36=1/6.
Answer is : B
1/36
B.
Its 1/36.
Assume u want (1,1)- Probability of getting 1 the first time is 1/6. Probability of getting 1 the second time is 1/6. Thus the probability of both happening together is 1/6 * 1/6= 1/ 36.
As simple as it can get.
[(1/6) x (1/6)] x 6 = 1/6 -> answer is B
First dice: 6/6
Second dice: 1/6
Probability: 1/6 ==> Answer B
————————————-good point!
i was choose to (E) at first time, but this is a persuasive point.
(B) is right~
B…1/6
Thnkx Avinash
robin.
wel we dont hav to conisder the obvious… as dice thrown up result in any number at the first time doesnt matter… say it turned up as x .. now we just need to find what is the prob… of x to occur.. in one dice trhow… so its.. 1/6…
B
B
ans. is 1/6
answer is 36
well this simple question.i got the answer n was confused seeing answers out here.
tips,
when first dice is 1 …then another may be 1 to 6.
so probability will be 1/6 if first dice is always one which in not possible.
first dice also have free to roll
it can be 1to 6 any one
so total probability will be 1/6(first)*1/6(second)=1/36
i go with 1/6
but i m so confused with mixed response of the ppl
can any one confirm the answer
gre team plz help !!
according to me
there can be six such outcomes
(1,1) (2,2) (3,3) (4,4) (5,5) (6,6)
and total its 36
so answer is 6/36 i.e 1/6
but canany1 confirm this
hey the answer is 1/6 for sure !!!
1/36 is a trap ans , dont fall for it !!!
B. 1/6
as 2nd 1 will be same with the fast.at this situation any number out of 6…
It’s B! if it said what are the chances of getting a 3 twice in a row it would be 1/36
(E)
when a die is rolled the prob of a number is 1/6
when it is rolled for the 2nd time the prob of is ( 1/6 )*( 1/6 )
=1/36
E…
1/6 is the answer
ON first roll u will definitely get a no. ….now prob. of getting the same no. again will be 1/6…so answer is
1/6.
i will go with the ans D because
here i would give u more practical explanation rather than any mathematical form
at first we roll the dice let its out come be anything that is immaterial
when we roll the dice next time then there is a possibility of getting any of the six numbers but favourable number is only one that should be same of that no that we got in the fist trail sooooo
probability=no.of favourable outcomes/total outcomes
so ans is 1/6
two independent events,
then probability of first is 6/6 “as he didn’t specify number”
and probability of second is 1/6
, so probability of both 6/6 x 1/6 = 1/6 so B