The probability of rain

jesyy
#1. September 22nd, 2007, at 12:47 PM.

hi ans is E.
here’s the expl..
p(rain to occur>=1)=1- p(rain to occour

jesyy
#2. September 22nd, 2007, at 12:47 PM.

hi ans is E.
here’s the expl..
p(rain to occur>=1)=1- p(rain not to occour

JKR
#3. September 22nd, 2007, at 6:30 PM.

It’s E.

Pr= 1-(1-2/5)*5/6*5/6*5/6(1-4/5)
=67/72

vasu
#4. September 23rd, 2007, at 11:11 PM.

E.

the above explanations are right.

vidya
#5. September 24th, 2007, at 7:21 PM.

e

Vineet Pandit
#6. October 19th, 2007, at 3:45 PM.

YES IT IS E
THE PROBABILITY THAT IT WILL NOT RAIN ON ANY OF THE DAYS IS 5/72
SO THE PROBABILITY THT IT WILL RAIN ON ATLEAST ONE DAY IS 1-5/72
WHICH IS 67/72

pen name
#7. December 21st, 2007, at 10:51 PM.

Yes its E

Ritinder
#8. September 8th, 2008, at 9:41 PM.

can any1 plz xplain me da logic….i dint und how 2 get da ans

Alexandra
#9. September 9th, 2008, at 2:03 AM.

Would someone please explain why you must indirectly calculate Pr(Rain) = 1-Pr(NoRain) to get Pr(Rain)? Why not just multiply the given probabilities?

James
#10. September 9th, 2008, at 10:20 AM.

how do you calculate the probability of getting tails at least once out of flipping a coin twice? thats the fundamental question that needs in explanation….and in decent english as well…I will never understand why no one on this site can speak english very well…where are you all from?

tara
#11. September 9th, 2008, at 3:48 PM.

i dint understand at all. i hate probability. from where on earth did the 72 come in? can someone explain step by step? thank you

divya valluri
#12. September 9th, 2008, at 7:14 PM.

hey plzz can any1 explain it briefly..got very bad knowldge in permutations,,….plz plz plz explain it..

Charlee
#13. September 10th, 2008, at 2:01 AM.

James:

Solve for: probability of rain, P(r), being greater than or equal to 1 day of the 5.

Problem stated: P(r)=1-P(nr)

We need to subtract the probability of no rain, P(nr), from the probability 1, or chance it will rain all five days, to get the probablity it will rain on one or more days.

Therefore, P(r) = 1-(1-2/5)*(1-1/6)*(1-1/6)*(1-1/6)*(1-4/5)

Do the math: P(r) = 1-5/72
P(r) = 67/72

(The reason you wouldn’t just multiply all the P(r) together is that it would give you the probability of rain every day.)

ahmed
#14. September 11th, 2008, at 3:15 PM.

P(r) = 1-(1-2/5)*(1-1/6)*(1-1/6)*(1-1/6)*(1-4/5)

Do the math: P(r) = 1-5/72
P(r) = 67/72 so itz E

Vikas Kumar
#15. September 12th, 2008, at 1:00 PM.

Yeha… sure.. it is 67/72